Could anybody give me an easy example (an analogy) on how to solve this problem?
What is the probability of rolling a multiple of 2 with one number cube? I know the answer is 1/2.... but it's 3/6 reduced to 1/2....how did that 3/6 reduced to 1/2? People explained it to me but I still have NO clue. Please use an analogy for it.See Answer 10 Add Answers
Thats fractions man. Half an apple is the same as 2/4 of an apple. 1/2, 2/4, 3/6, 4/8, 5/10 is all the same thing. If you have twenty apples you have 20/20. If ten get taken you have 10/20 which is the same as 1/2. You have HALF the apples you started with. If you have 6 candies ( 6/6 ) and 3 get taken ( 3/6 ) you have HALF the candies you started with ( 1/2 ).